The preponderance of evidence would suggest, yes. I say preponderance of evidence since there's more specific questions we could ask (e.g. how does gun control work in rural vs urban areas where police response time differs drastically), but let's put aside.
First and foremost, great resource:
https://jhupress.files.wordpress.com/2013/01/1421411113_updf.pdf , with the only caveat being it might be outdated. I want to draw your attention to PDF page 14-15 which compares aggregate statistics in states with high gun control and low gun control. Despite being comparable both in population size and nonlethal violent crime, firearm homicides and suicides are vastly more represented in high-gun states compared to low gun states
relative to total homicide and suicide rate.
That resource in other chapters also points out that a lot of firearm related violence is domestic abuse (hence why firearm related homicides among women are nearly twice as much as men). I bring this up to point out that must gun-related violence is *not* premeditated but rather spur-of-the-moment.
The Australian study as has also
been brought up, but I'm hesitant to cite that one.
See figure A. Overall homicides in Australia went down, so while firearm related homicides in Australia went down; furthermore, overall homicides went down at a faster rate. So the question is, was the homicide decline driven by gun control or this larger force driving total homicide decline? I don't know. It's worth mentioning Australia did not have a single mass shooting after their gun control law and overall homicides (both by firearm and in general) declined.
Even if we can "argue away" the Australian study,
we must consider all other evidence. Denying that guns aren't part of the narrative only begs the question what is.