If you took what I said in that previous conversation about "What the Bible says and doesn't say about the shape of the Earth" to mean that every belief must be strictly based on an explicit spelling out word for word in the Bible, I think you misunderstood me.
That is always a possibility. Let's trace the chain of reasoning that led to my misunderstanding below, see if we can spot the kinks.
I'm a firm believer that if you're going to say either "God doesn't like A, B, C" or "The Bible says X, Y, Z" you've gotta back it up with a simple, clear verse.
Well, I brought up the point that Galileo was persecuted for teaching something that contradicted what was taught from Biblical verse. You countered that the religious claims the Biblical scholars of the day persecuted him for defying were not actually contained anywhere in the Bible verses. You concluded that, because those claims were not explicitly quoted from the Bible, those claims were thus merely the authorities' pre-conceived notions, and had no Biblical basis whatsoever.
I.e.:
2) Concerning Galileo's conviction. There is no verse in the Bible that says "The earth is the center of the universe, etc..." That council had no Biblical basis to convict him on whatsoever. I don't see how that could be an example of science directly conflicting some verse somewhere. It looks like it directly conflicted that council's pre-conceived notions of the universe though.
Then, recently, I applied the argument you made above to the topic of homosexuality. Your response to your own argument:
I'm 99.99999% sure that there is no verse in the Bible that explicitly says the words "Homosexuality is no longer punishable by death." I don't think that's a problem though.
Now, you
don't think it's a problem to claim that "homosexuality is no longer punishable by death," even though:
... the Bible doesn't in fact say anywhere explicitly that [homosexuality is no longer punishable by death], and that the scriptures that those who purport such nonsense do not explicitly say so.
Borrowed from:
What I was trying to say is that the Bible doesn't in fact say anywhere explicitly that the earth is flat, square, cubic or any other nonsense, and that the scriptures that those who purport such nonsense do not explicitly say so.
So we have two cases.
1)
Claim attributed to the Bible: The solar system is not geocentric and the Earth is flat.
Actually in the Bible: Something about "four corners of the Earth" etc. (I don't recall the relevant verses being posted, besides that phrase.) In other words, nothing about "Earth-flat" or "Earth-center of solar system."
Your response: There is no Bible verse that makes that specific claim, so you can't make that claim and attribute it to the Bible.
2)
Claim attributed to the Bible: Homosexuality is no longer punishable by death.
Actually in the Bible: "If a man practices homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman, both men have committed a detestable act. They must both be put to death, for they are guilty of a capital offense" and (speaking about an adulterer) "Jesus stooped down, and with [his] finger wrote on the ground, [as though he heard them not]. So when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her." In other words, nothing about "homosexuality-not punishable by death" or "forget what we originally said about killing homosexuals."
Your response: Even though there is no Bible verse that makes that specific claim, you can indeed make that claim and attribute it to the Bible.
The reason I quoted that story with Jesus and the hooker (lol) is because it was a sexual sin with the same punishment. Its a pretty common belief that its message, that adultery no longer requires the death penalty applies to homosexuality, beastiality, and other sexual sins.
Well, here we need to see if the rule works again. Is there a specific verse in the Bible that says "Jesus's message - that adultery no longer requires the death penalty [which itself is not technically true of Biblical verse given the passages you provided, remember] - also applies to homosexuality, beastiality, and other sexual sins," or is this 'common belief' not supported by an actual quote from scripture, the way geocentricity and flat Earthism weren't?
This discrepancy needs an explanation. Either only literal readings of verse can provide legitimate Biblical claims, or
not only literal readings of verse can provide legitimate Biblical claims. It cannot be both ways.